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Wednesday, 31 January 2018

Stair Design

Introduction
Staircases provide means of movement from one floor to another in a structure. Staircases
consist of a number of steps with landings at suitable intervals to provide comfort and safety
for the users.
Some common types of stairs are shown in Figure 10.1.
These include straight-flight stairs,
quarter-turn stairs, half-turn stairs, branching stairs, and geometrical stairs.

Analysis And Design Of A Multi Storied Residential Building Of (Ung-2+G+10) By Using Most Economical Column Method By Dr P V Surya Prakash

Abstract
Hyderabad is the fifth largest city in our country. As it is rapidly developing in the field of
construction in the city is very costly. The design process of structural planning and design requires
not only imaginations and conceptual thinking but also a sound full knowledge on how a structural
engineer can economies the structure besides the knowledge of practical aspects, such as recent
design codes, bye laws, experience, intuition and judgment. The main purpose of the project is to
ensure and enhance the safety, keeping careful balance between economy and safety (i.e. Most
economical column method). The present project deals with the analysis and design of a multi storied residential building of (ung-2+g+10) by using most economical column method. The dead load &live loads are applied and the design for beams, columns, footing is obtained etabs with its new features surpassed its predecessors, and compotators with its data sharing.our main aim is to complete a multi-storey
building is to ensure that the structure is safe and economical against all possible loading conditions
and to fulfill the function for which they have built.safety requirements must be so that the
structure is able to serve it purpose with the maintain cost.detailed planning of the structure
usually comes from several studies made by town planners, investors, users, architects and other
engineers .on that, and a structural engineer has the main influence on the overall structural design and an architect is involved in aesthetic details.for the design of the structure, the dead load, live load,
seismic and wind load are considered. The analysis and design for the structure done by using a
software package etabs.in this project multistoried construction, we have adopted limit state method of analysis and design the structure. The design is in confirmation with is 456-2000.the analysis of frame is worked out by using etabs

1. Statement Of The Project:
Salient Features: The design data shall be as
follows.
1. Utility of Buildings: Residential Building
2. No of Storey: (UNG-2 +G+10)
3. Shape of the Building: Rectangular
4. No. Of Staircases: ONE
5. No. Of Lifts: One
6. Types of Walls: Brick Wall
7. Geometric Details
a) Ground Floor (G-2, G-1): 3.2 M
b) Floor-To-Floor Height: 3.0 M
c) Height of Plinth: 0.6 M above G.L
d) Depth of Foundation: 2 M below G.L
8. Material Details
a) Concrete Grade: M30, M25 (COLUMNS
AND BEAMS)
b) All Steel Grades:
HYSDREINFORCEMENT of Grade
Fe415
c) Bearing Capacity of Soil: 200 KN/M2

SP 46 for Engineering Drawing

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Basic of Civil Engineering Very Useful for Freshers Interview

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Objective Question Related to Rock and stone

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List-II
(Mineral) (Property)
A. Felspar 1. No cleavage
B. Gypsum 2. Hardness
C. Mica 3. Split along one or many directions
D. Limonite 4. Readily soak in water
Codes:
(a)A B C D         (b)A B C D
    1 4 3 2                   1 4 2 3
(c)A B C D        (d)A B C D
   4 2 3 1                   2 4 3 1

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List-II
(Property of Mineral) (Definition/measurement)
A. Hardness     1. Splitting of minerals along
planes parallel to crystal faces
B. Streak         2. Shine on mineral surface
C. Cleavage 3. Mohs scale
D. Lusture 4. Mineral colour in powdered form

Codes:
(a)A B C D       (b)A B C D
   3 4 2 1                3 4 1 2
(c)A B C D       (b)A B C D
   1 4 3 2                1 4 2 3.

3. The texture of sandstone is
(a) prophyritic (b) conglomerate
(c) vesicular (d) granular crystalline

Objective Question Related to Structural Clay Product by S.K Duggal

1. Consider the following statements:
A good soil for making bricks should contain
(1) about 30% alumina
(2) about 10% lime nodules
(3) a small quantity of iron oxides
(4) about 15% magnesia
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are corect
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

2. If L is the length and B the width of the brick and t the thickness of mortar, the relation
between these is
(a) L = 2B (b) L = B + t
(c) L = B + 2 t (d) L = 2B + t

3. The weight of a standard brick should be
(a) 1000 g (b) 1500 g
(c) 2500 g (d) 3000 g

4. Frog is provided in
(i) 9 cm high bricks only
(ii) 4 cm high bricks only
(iii) extruded bricks only
Of the above
(a) only (i) is correct (b) only (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

5. The most important purpose of frog in a brick is to
(a) emboss manufacturer's name
(b) reduce the weight of brick
(c) form keyed joint between brick and mortar
(d) improve insulation by providing 'hollows'

6. Consider the following statements :
(1) About 25% of alumina in brick earth imparts the plasticity necessary for moulding
bricks into required shape
(2) Iron pyrite present in brick earth preserves the form of the bricks at high temperatures.
(3) Presence of weeds in brick earth makes the bricks unsound.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Water absorption for Ist class bricks should not be more than
(a) 12% (b) 15%
(c) 20% (d) 25%

8. For hidden masonry works the bricks used should be
(a) Ist Class (b) IInd Class
(c) IIIrd Class (d) for any of the above

9. For centring of R.C.C. structures the bricks used should be
(a) Ist Class (b) IInd Class
(c) IIIrd Class (d) IVth Class

10. Match List-I (Constituents of bricks) with List-II (Corresponding influence) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Constituents of bricks) (Corresponding influence)
A. Alumina 1. Colour of brick
B. Silica 2. Plasticity recovery for
moulding
C. Magnesia 3. Reacts with silica during
burning and causes particles
to unite together and
development of strength
D. Limestone 4. Preserves the form of brick
at high temperature and
prevents shrinkage
Codes :
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
2 1 4 3 3 4 1 2
(c) A B C D (b) A B C D
2 4 1 3 3 1 4 2

11. The IS classification of bricks is based on
(i) compressive strength
(ii) water absorption
(iii) dimensional tolerance
Of the above
(a) only (i) is correct (b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

12. Which of the following constituent in earth gives plasticity to mould bricks in suitable
shape?
(a) Silica (b) Lime
(c) Alumina (d) Magnesia
13. The raw bricks shrink during drying and warp during burning because of
(a) less lime in brick earth
(b) less silica and excess magnesia in brick earth
(c) excess of alumina and silica in brick earth
(d) alkalis in brick earth

14. The moulded bricks are dried before burning to an approximate moisture content of
(a) 3% (b) 6%
(c) 10% (d) 20%

15. In the process of brick manufacturing the pug mill is used in which of the following
operation?
(a) Weathering (b) Blending
(c) Tempering (d) Burning

16. Consider the following statements :
For the manufacture of good quality bricks it is essential to
(1) use a reverberatory kiln
(2) blend the soil with clay or sand as deemed appropriate
(3) knead the soil in a ghani
(4) temper the soil in a pug mill
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

17. Bricks are burnt at a temperature range of
(a) 500° to 700° C (b) 700° to 900° C
(c) 900° to 1200° C (d) 1200° to 1500° C

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
(Ingredients) (%)
(A) Silica (1) 50 – 60%
(B) Lime (2) 20 – 30%
(C) Alumina (3) 10%
(D) Alkalis (4) <10%
Codes :
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
1 2 3 4 1 3 2 4
(c) A B C D (b) A B C D
1 2 4 3 2 1 4 3

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
(Ingredients) (Property)
A. Silica 1. imparts durability, prevents
shrinkage
B. Alumina 2. softens clay
C. Lime 3. renders clay plastic
D. Ferric Oxide 4. lowers fusing point
Codes :
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
1 3 2 4 1 4 2 3
(c) A B C D (b) A B C D
1 3 4 2 4 3 1 2

20. Excess of silica makes brick
(a) brittle on burning (b) to melt on burning
(c) to crack on drying (d) to warp

21. Which of the following is harmful in the clay used for making bricks?
(a) Iron oxide (b) Iron pyrite
(c) Alkali (d) Magnesia

22. When carbonaceous materials in the form of bituminous matter of carbon are present in
the clay, the bricks will
(a) be spongy (b) have black core
(c) be porus (d) have cracks

23. Swollen structure and white blotches will be found in bricks when
(a) carbon (b) bituminous matter
(c) organic matter (d) sulphur
is present in clay used for making bricks.

24. Consider the following properties
1. Strength development during firing
2. Drying shrinkage
3. Shaping
When flyash is used as an additive with clay in brick manufacturing the improved
properties are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

25. Consider the following stages in the manufacturing of bricks :
1. Weathering 2. Moulding
3. Tempering
The correct sequence of these stages in the manufacturing of the bricks, is
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1
(c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1

26. Consider the following operations of preparation of brick earth
1. Digging 2. Weatherig
3. Tempering 4. Blending
5. Unsoiling
The correct sequence of these operations are
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (d) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3

27. In some brick masonry walls, patches of whitish crystals were found on the exposed
surfaces, also chipping and spalling of bricks took place from the same walls. Which
among the following are the causes of these defects?
1. Settlement of foundation 2. Over-loading of the walls
3. Sulphate attack 4. Efflorescence
Codes :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

28. Efflorescence of bricks is due to
(a) soluble salts present in clay for making bricks
(b) high porosity of bricks
(c) high silt content in brick earth
(d) excessive burning of bricks

29. What is efflorescence ?
(a) Formation of white patches on the brick surface due to insoluble salts in the brick clay.
(b) Swelling of brick due to presence of carbonaceous matter and gass
(c) Deformation of brick due to exposure to rain
(d) Impurities in the brick clay which show after burning

30. Consider the following with regards to burning of clay bricks.
1. The clay loses its plasticity
2. Carbonate minerals are decarbonated
3. Some of the carbonaceous matter is burnt
4. Clay mass is converted into glass like substance
5. Ferrous iron is oxidized to ferric form

The changes that occur during dehydration period are :
(a) 1, 3, 5 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 2, 4, 5

31. When the deposits of efflorescence is more than 10 per cent but less than 50 per cent of the
exposed areas of brick, the presence of efflorescence is classified as
(a) slight (b) moderate
(c) heavy (d) serious

32. A good brick when immersed in water bath for 24 hours, should not absorb water more
than
(a) 20% of its dry weight (b) 15 % of its saturated weight
(c) 10% of its saturated weight (d) 20% of its saturated weight

33. Crushed pottery is used in the manufacture of
(a) fire bricks (b) stone bricks
(c) terracotta (d) clay tiles

34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer used the codes given below the lists:
List - I List - II
A. Acid Brick 1. Made from Quartzite
B. Silica Brick 2. Made from magnesite
C. Basic Brick 3. Made from fire clay
D. Neutral Brick 4. Made from chromite
Codes :
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
3 1 2 4 3 2 1 4
(c) A B C D (b) A B C D
4 1 2 3 1 2 3 4

35. The compressive strength of burnt clay bricks as per IS 1077 is
(a) 100 kg/cm2 (b) 150 kg/cm2
(c) 100 – 150 kg/cm2 (d) 35 – 350 kg/cm2

36. The deformation of the shape of bricks caused by the rain water falling on the hot bricks
is known as
(a) spots (b) checks
(c) chuffs (d) blisters

37. The defect in clay products because of imprisoned air during their moulding is known as
(a) blister (b) lamination
(c) cracks (d) spots

38. Basic refractory bricks consist of
(a) silica bricks (b) ganister bricks
(c) magnesia bricks (d) chromite bricks

39. In steel industry the bricks used for lining furnances should be
(a) acid refractory (b) basic refractory
(c) neutral refractory (d) heavy duty

40. Terracotta is burned in
(a) pug mill (b) reverberatory furnance
(c) muffle furnance (d) puddling furnance

41. Glazing of clay product is achieved by throwing sodium chloride in kiln at a temperature
of
(a) 600 – 800° C (b) 700 – 1000° C
(c) 900 – 1100° C (d) 1200 – 1300° C

42. The bricks which are extensively used for basic refractories in furnaces are
(a) chrome bricks (b) sillimanite bricks
(c) magnesite bricks (d) fosterite bricks

43. Which one of the following procedure is applied to determine the soundness of bricks?
(a) Immersing the bricks under water for 16 hrs and determining the quantity of water
absorbed by the brick
(b) Immersing the brick under water for 24 hrs and determining its expansion using Le
Chatelier apparatus
(c) Taking two bricks, hitting one against the other and observing whether they break or
not and the type of sound produced while hitting
(d) Scratching the brick by finger nail and noting whether any impression is made or not

44. The number of bricks required per cubic meter of brick masonry is
(a) 400 (b) 450
(c) 500 (d) 550

Answer Of All Objective-
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c)

Design of Underground Water Tank (Reservoir)

Tank Dimensions
Total area for the four floors = 4 (16 14 14) (13 14 13) = 7040 ft2 Number of residents, N 7040 8/1000 = 56 Daily water requirement 56 5 = 280 ft3 Required volume of UG water tank, V = 2 280 = 560 ft3
Depth of tank, H V1/3 = (560)1/3 = 8.24
Freeboard, F.B. = 0.50 Total depth, D = H + F.B. = 8.74
Assuming L/B = 1.5, Tank area A = LB 560/8.24 = 1.5B B B = 6.73, L = 10.10
Loads and Material Properties
Loads: FF = 10 psf, LL = 20 psf
Materials: fc = 3 ksi, ft,ult = 5fc = 5(3/1000) = 0.274 ksi, ft,all = ft,ult/2 = 0.137 ksi, fs = 20 ksi fc = 0.45fc = 1.35 ksi, k = 0.378, j = 0.874, R = 0.223 ksi, Rt = ft,all/6 = 0.023 ksi
For soil, Angle = 30 Ka = (1 sin )/(1 + sin ) = 0.333
Design Conditions
The UG water tank has three basic components; i.e., top slab, sidewalls and base slab The top slab will be designed as normal simply supported slab based on the self-weight and superimposed loads The design of sidewalls and the base slab will be based on assuming
(i) Tank full of water but no soil outside, (ii) No water inside tank but soil pressure from outside
The other more critical condition of no water inside but saturated soil outside is avoided here because it might cause instability of the tank itself. Alternately, a provision must be made that the tank cannot be evacuated when the soil is fully saturated.

Tuesday, 30 January 2018

SURVEYING

The planning and design of all Civil Engineering projects such as construction of highways, bridges, tunnels, dams etc. are based upon surveying measurements. Moreover, during execution, project of any magnitude is constructed along the lines and points established by surveying.
What is survey for engineers?
Surveying or land surveying is the technique, profession, and science of determining the terrestrial or three-dimensional positions of points and the distances and angles between them. A land surveying professional is called a land surveyor.

Why surveying is important?
Surveying is important and most of us depend on it so as to ensure order in the physical world around us. Surveyors play an integral role in land development, from the planning and design of land subdivisions through to the final construction of roads, utilities and landscaping

Why surveying is important in civil engineering?
The planning and design of all Civil Engineering projects such as construction of highways, bridges, tunnels, dams etc. are based upon surveying measurements. Moreover, during execution, project of any magnitude is constructed along the lines and points established by surveying.

Roofing Handbook (2nd Edition)

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Building Design and Construction Handbook

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Estimation and Costing textbook by BN Dutta.pdf

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AutoCAD Basics

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Top 130 Objective Question (Irrigation water resources engineering and hydrology)

1. The main cause of meandering is
a) presence of an excessive bed slope in the river
b) degradation
c) the extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
d) none of the above
Ans: c

2. Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
a) equal to 1
b) less than 1
c) greater than 1
d) less than or equal to 1
Ans: c

3. Select the correct statement.
a) A meander increases the river length but a cut off reduces the river length.
b) A cutoff increases the river length but a meander reduces the river length.
c) Both meander and cutoff increase the river length.
d) Both meander and cutoff decrease the river length.
Ans: a

4. River training for depth is achieved by
a) groynes
b) construction of dykes or leavees
c) both (a) and (b)
d) groynes and bandalling
Ans: d

Top 90 Fluid Mechanics Objective Question

1. Which of the following is used to measure the discharge ?
a) current meter
b) venturimeter
c) pitot tube
d) hotwire anemometer
Ans: b

2. Select the incorrect statement.
a) The pressure intensity at vena contracta is atmospheric.
b) Contraction is least at vena contracta.
c) Stream lines are parallel throughout the jet at vena contracta.
d) Coefficient of contraction is always less than one.
Ans: c

3. Size of a venturimeter is specified by
a) pipe diameter
b) throat diameter
c) angle of diverging section
d) both pipe diameter as well as throat diameter
Ans: a

4. Due to each end contraction, the discharge of rectangular sharp crested weir is
reduced by
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: a

5. The discharge through a V- notch varies as
a) H1/2
b) H3'2
c) H5/2
d) H5'4 where H is head.
Ans: c

DESIGN OF SLABS by Dr. G. P. Chandradhara

                                                             
1. GENERAL
A slab is a flat two dimensional planar structural element having thickness small compared to its other two dimensions. It provides a working flat surface or a covering shelter in buildings. It primarily transfer the load by bending in one or two directions. Reinforced concrete slabs are used in floors, roofs and walls of buildings and as the decks of bridges. The floor system of a structure can take many forms such as in situ solid slab, ribbed slab or pre-cast units. Slabs may be supported on monolithic concrete beam, steel beams, walls or directly over the columns. Concrete slab behave primarily as flexural members and the design is similar to that of beams.

2. CLASSIFICATION OF SLABS
Slabs are classified based on many aspects
1) Based of shape: Square, rectangular, circular and polygonal in shape.
2) Based on type of support: Slab supported on walls, Slab supported on beams, Slab supported on columns (Flat slabs).
3) Based on support or boundary condition: Simply supported, Cantilever slab, Overhanging slab, Fixed or Continues slab.
4) Based on use: Roof slab, Floor slab, Foundation slab, Water tank slab.
5) Basis of cross section or sectional configuration: Ribbed slab /Grid slab, Solid slab, Filler slab, Folded plate
6) Basis of spanning directions :
One way slab – Spanning in one direction
Two way slab _ Spanning in two direction

Monday, 29 January 2018

Types of Cement

(a) Ordinary Portland Cement
(i ) Ordinary Portland Cement 33 Grade– IS 269: 1989
(ii ) Ordinary Portland Cement 43 Grade– IS 8112: 1989
(iii ) Ordinary Portland Cement 53 Grade– IS 12269: 1987
(b) Rapid Hardening Cement – IS 8041: 1990
(c) Extra Rapid Hardening Cement – –
(d) Sulphate Resisting Cement – IS 12330: 1988
(e) Portland Slag Cement – IS 455: 1989
(f ) Quick Setting Cement – –
(g) Super Sulphated Cement – IS 6909: 1990
(h) Low Heat Cement – IS 12600: 1989
(j ) Portland Pozzolana Cement – IS 1489 (Part I) 1991 (fly ash based)
– IS 1489 (Part II) 1991 (calcined clay
based)
(k) Air Entraining Cement – –
(l ) Coloured Cement: White Cement – IS 8042: 1989
(m) Hydrophobic Cement – IS 8043: 1991
(n) Masonry Cement – IS 3466: 1988
(o) Expansive Cement – –
(p) Oil Well Cement – IS 8229: 1986
(q) Rediset Cement – –
(r ) Concrete Sleeper grade Cement – IRS-T 40: 1985
(s) High Alumina Cement – IS 6452: 1989
(t) Very High Strength Cement – –

Manufacture of Portland Cement

The raw materials required for manufacture of Portland cement are calcareous materials,
such as limestone or chalk, and argillaceous material such as shale or clay. Cement factories
are established where these raw materials are available in plenty. Cement factories have come
up in many regions in India, eliminating the inconvenience of long distance transportation of
raw and finished materials.
The process of manufacture of cement consists of grinding the raw materials, mixing
them intimately in certain proportions depending upon their purity and composition and
burning them in a kiln at a temperature of about 1300 to 1500°C, at which temperature, the
material sinters and partially fuses to form nodular shaped clinker. The clinker is cooled and
ground to fine powder with addition of about 3 to 5% of gypsum. The product formed by
using this procedure is Portland cement.
There are two processes known as “wet” and “dry” processes depending upon whether
the mixing and grinding of raw materials is done in wet or dry conditions. With a little change
in the above process we have the semi-dry process also where the raw materials are ground
dry and then mixed with about 10-14 per cent of water and further burnt to clinkering
temperature.
For many years the wet process remained popular because of the possibility of more
accurate control in the mixing of raw materials. The techniques of intimate mixing of raw
materials in powder form was not available then. Later, the dry process gained momentum
with the modern development of the technique of dry mixing of powdered materials using
compressed air. The dry process requires much less fuel as the materials are already in a dry
state, whereas in the wet process the slurry contains about 35 to 50 per cent water. To dry
the slurry we thus require more fuel. In India most of the cement factories used the wet
process. Recently a number of factories have been commissioned to employ the dry process
method. Within next few years most of the cement factories will adopt dry process system.
In the wet process, the limestone brought from the quarries is first crushed to smaller
fragments. Then it is taken to a ball or tube mill where it is mixed with clay or shale as the case
may be and ground to a fine consistency of slurry with the addition of water. The slurry is a
liquid of creamy consistency with water content of about 35 to 50 per cent, wherein particles,
crushed to the fineness of Indian Standard Sieve number 9, are held in suspension. The slurry
is pumped to slurry tanks or basins where it is kept in an agitated condition by means of
rotating arms with chains or blowing compressed air from the bottom to prevent settling of
limestone and clay particles. The composition of the slurry is tested to give the required
chemical composition and corrected periodically in the tube mill and also in the slurry tank
by blending slurry from different storage tanks. Finally, the corrected slurry is stored in the final
storage tanks and kept in a homogeneous condition by the agitation of slurry.
The corrected slurry is sprayed on to the upper end of a rotary kiln against hot heavy
hanging chains. The rotary kiln is an important component of a cement factory. It is a thick
steel cylinder of diameter anything from 3 metres to 8 metres, lined with refractory materials,
mounted on roller bearings and capable of rotating about its own axis at a specified speed.
The length of the rotary kiln may vary anything from 30 metres to 200 metres. The slurry on
being sprayed against a hot surface of flexible chain loses moisture and becomes flakes. These
flakes peel off and fall on the floor. The rotation of the rotary kiln causes the flakes to move
from the upper end towards the lower end of the kiln subjecting itself to higher and higher
temperature. The kiln is fired from the lower end. The fuel is either powered coal, oil or natural
gass. By the time the material rolls down to the lower end of the rotary kiln, the dry material


Early History of Modern Cement

The story of the invention of Portland cement is, however, attributed to Joseph Aspdin, a Leeds
builder and bricklayer, even though similar procedures had been adopted by other inventors.
Joseph Aspdin took the patent of portland cement
on 21st October 1824. The fancy name of portland was given owing to the resemblance of
this hardened cement to the natural stone occurring at Portland in England. In his process
Aspdin mixed and ground hard limestones and finely divided clay into the form of slurry and
calcined it in a furnace similar to a lime kiln till the CO2 was expelled. The mixture so calcined was
then ground to a fine powder. Perhaps, a temperature lower than the clinkering
temperature was used by Aspdin. Later in 1845 Isaac Charles Johnson burnt a mixture of clay and
chalk till the clinkering stage to make better cement and established factories in 1851.
In the early period, cement was used for making mortar only. Later the use of cement was
extended for making concrete. As the use of Portland cement was increased for making
concrete, engineers called for consistently higher standard material for use in major works.
Association of Engineers, Consumers and Cement Manufacturers have been established to specify
standards for cement. The German standard specification for Portland cement was drawn in
1877. The British standard specification was first drawn up in 1904. The first ASTM specification
was issued in 1904.
In India, Portland cement was first manufactured in 1904 near Madras, by the South India
Industrial Ltd. But this venture failed. Between 1912 and 1913, the Indian Cement Co. Ltd.,
was established at Porbander (Gujarat) and by 1914 this Company was able to deliver about
1000 tons of Portland cement. By 1918 three factories were established. Together they were
able to produce about 85000 tons of cement per year. During the First Five-Year Plan (1951-
1956) cement production in India rose from 2.69 million tons to 4.60 million tons. By 1969
the total production of cement in India was 13.2 million tons and India was then occupying
the 9th place in the world, with the USSR producing 89.4 million tonnes and the USA
producing 70.5 million tonnes1.1. Table 1.1 shows the Growth of Cement Industry through
Plans.
Prior to the manufacture of Portland cement in India, it was imported from UK and only
a few reinforced concrete structures were built with imported cement. A three storeyed
structure built at Byculla, Bombay is one of the oldest RCC structures using Portland cement
in India. A concrete masonry building on Mount Road at Madras (1903), the har-ki-pahari
bridge at Haridwar (1908) and the Cotton Depot Bombay, then one of the largest of its kind
in the world (1922) are some of the oldest concrete structures in India.

Top 110 Steel structure Objective Question

1. The heaviest I-section for same depth is
a) ISMB
b) ISLB
c) ISHB
d) ISWB
Ans: c
2. Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on
a) net area and gross area
b) gross area and net area
c) net area in both cases
d) gross area in both cases
Ans: b
3. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in
tension will be taken as
a) 120 mm
b) 160 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 300 mm
Ans: b
4. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on
the base plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
a) fully by direct bearing
b) fully through fastenings
c) 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
d) 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
Ans: c
5. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to
a) only shear stresses
b) only tensile stresses
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a
6. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet
will be the one which
a) is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group
b) is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group
c) gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
d) gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and Fm is the shearing load due to
moment in any rivet.
Ans: d
7. Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
a) lap joint
b) butt joint with single cover plate
c) butt joint with double cover plates
d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm
diameter is
a) 1.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 2.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm
Ans: b
9. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
a) stronger
b) weaker
c) equally strong
d) any of the above
Ans: a
10. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet
as per Unwin's formula will be
a) 16 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 24 mm
d) 27 mm
Ans: c
11. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint
can be avoided ?
a) tension failure of the plate
b) shear failure of the rivet
c) shear failure of the plate
d) crushing failure of the rivet
Ans: c
12. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
a) 1.5 d
b) 2.0 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3.0 d
where d is gross diameter of rivet
Ans: c
13. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 70%
Ans: c
14. Select the correct statement
a) Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt.
b) Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet.
c) Bolts are used as a temporary fastenings whereas rivets are used as permanent fastenings.
d) Riveting is less noisy than bolting.
Ans: c
15. Bolts are most suitable to carry
a) shear
b) bending
c) axial tension
d) shear and bending
Ans: c
16. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
a) gross diameter of bolt
b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
c) nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
d) nominal diameter of bolt
Ans: b
17. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
a) black bolt
b) ordinary unfinished bolt
c) turned and fitted bolt
d) high strength bolt
Ans: d
18. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
a) minimum dimension
b) average dimension
c) maximum dimension
d) none of the above
Ans: a
19. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
a) two times the weld size
b) four times the weld size
c) six times the weld size
d) weld size
Ans: b
20. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is
a) 1:1
b) 1 : V2
c) V2 : 1
d) 2: 1
Ans: c
21. A butt weld is specified by
a) effective throat thickness
b) plate thickness
c) size of weld
d) penetration thickness
Ans: a
22. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the above
Ans: a
23. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is
a) lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
b) lesser of 200 mm and 161
c) lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
d) lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
Ans: a
24. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
a) it is uneconomical
b) it cannot carry the load safely
c) it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
d) all of the above
Ans: c
25. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall
is
a) zero
b) 10
c) 100
d) infinity
Ans: a
26. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in
position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
a) 0.67 L
b) 0.8 L
c) L
d) 1.5 L
Ans: b
27. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not
restrained in direction is taken as
a) 1.8 L
b) L
c) 1.1 L
d) 1.5 L
Ans: c
28. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and
superimposed load is
a) 180
b) 200
c) 250
d) 350
Ans: a
29. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by
wind or seismic forces is
a) 150
b) 180
c) 250
d) 350
Ans: c
30. According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection index
(n) is
a) 1.0
b) 1.4
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
Ans: b
31. The best arrangement to provide unified behavior in built up steel columns is by
a) lacing
b) battening
c) tie plates
d) perforated cover plates
Ans: a
32. If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar
should be
a) 40mm
b) 60mm
c) 80mm
d) 100mm
Ans: b
33. The use of tie plates in laced columns is
a) prohibited
b) not prohibited
c) permitted at start and end of lacing system only
d) permitted between two parts of the lacing
Ans: c
34. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
a) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
b) shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
c) 2.5% of the column load
d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: b
35. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should
preferably be between
a) 10° to 30°
b) 30° to 40°
c) 40° to 70°
d) 90°
Ans: c
36. Battening is preferable when the
i) column carries axial load only
ii) space between the two main components is not very large
iii) column is eccentrically loaded The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c
37. The effective length of a battened column is increased by
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: b
38. The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be
more than
a) 3t
b) 4t
c) 6t
d) 8t
where t = thickness of the batten plate
Ans: b
39. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed
a) 100
b) 120
c) 145
d) 180
Ans: c
40. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
a) minimum weight
b) minimum depth
c) maximum weight
d) minimum thickness of web
Ans: a
41. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
a) vertical intermediate stiffener
b) horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
c) bearing stiffener
d) none of the above
Ans: a
42. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
a) shear buckling of web plate
b) compression buckling of web plate
c) yielding
d) all of the above
Ans: b
43. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also
exposed to weather, is
a) 5 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 8 mm
d) 10mm
Ans: b
44. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
a) increasing the web thickness
b) providing suitable stiffeners
c) increasing the length of the bearing plates
d) none of the above
Ans: c
45. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the out stand of flange plates should not
exceed
a) 121
b) 161
c) 201
d) 251
where t = thickness of thinnest flange plate
Ans: b
46. Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web
exceeds
a) 501
b) 851
c) 200t
d) 2501
where t is thickness of web
Ans: b
47. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
a) transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
b) prevent buckling of web
c) decrease the effective depth of web
d) prevent excessive deflection
Ans: b
48. The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
a) axial forces
b) shear and axial forces
c) shear and bending forces
d) axial and bending forces
Ans: c
49. Gantry girders are designed to resist
a) lateral loads
b) longitudinal loads and vertical loads
c) lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
d) lateral and longitudinal loads
Ans: c
50. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to
a) d/4
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) 2d/3
where d is the distance between flange angles
Ans: b
51. Bearing stiffeners are provided at
i) the supports
ii) the mid span
iii) the point of application of concentrated loads The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c
52. Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
a) horizontal shear only
b) vertical load only
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a
53. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is
a) 1.33d
b) 1.25 d
c) 1.5 d
d) 1.75d
where d is the distance between flange angles
Ans: c
54. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from
a) L/3 to L/5
b) L/4to2L/5
c) L/3 to L/2
d) 2L/5 to 3L/5 where L is span
Ans: a
55. The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
a) 650 mm
b) 810 mm
c) 1250 mm
d) 1680 mm
Ans: d
56. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than
a) 26'/2°
b) 30°
c) 35°
d) 40°
Ans: b
57. To minimise the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of
purlins shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b
58. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
a) axial force in rafter
b) shear force in rafter
c) deflection of rafter
d) bending moment in rafter
Ans: d
59. For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal
to the wall and roof surfaces is taken as
a) zero
b) ±0.2p
c) ± 0.5 p
d) ±0.7p
where p is basic wind pressure
Ans: b
60. The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as
a) pa V
b) paV2
c) p a (1/V)
d) paV"2
Ans: b

61. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint
can be avoided ?
a) tension failure of the plate
b) shear failure of the rivet
c) shear failure of the plate
d) crushing failure of the rivet
Ans: c

62. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
a) 1.5 d
b) 2.0 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3.0 d
where d is gross diameter of rivet
Ans: c

63. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 70%
Ans: c

64. Select the correct statement
a) Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt.
b) Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet.
c) Bolts are used as a temporary fastenings whereas rivets are used as permanent fastenings.
d) Riveting is less noisy than bolting.
Ans: c

65. Bolts are most suitable to carry
a) shear
b) bending
c) axial tension
d) shear and bending
Ans: c

66. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
a) gross diameter of bolt
b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
c) nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
d) nominal diameter of bolt
Ans: b

67. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
a) black bolt
b) ordinary unfinished bolt
c) turned and fitted bolt
d) high strength bolt
Ans: d

68. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
a) minimum dimension
b) average dimension
c) maximum dimension
d) none of the above
Ans: a

69. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
a) two times the weld size
b) four times the weld size
c) six times the weld size
d) weld size
Ans: b

70. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is
a) 1:1
b) 1 : V2
c) V2 : 1
d) 2: 1
Ans: c

71. A butt weld is specified by
a) effective throat thickness
b) plate thickness
c) size of weld
d) penetration thickness
Ans: a

72. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the above
Ans: a

73. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is
a) lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
b) lesser of 200 mm and 161
c) lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
d) lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
Ans: a

74. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
a) it is uneconomical
b) it cannot carry the load safely
c) it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
d) all of the above
Ans: c

75. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall
is
a) zero
b) 10
c) 100
d) infinity
Ans: a

76. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in
position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
a) 0.67 L
b) 0.8 L
c) L
d) 1.5 L
Ans: b

77. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not
restrained in direction is taken as
a) 1.8 L
b) L
c) 1.1 L
d) 1.5 L
Ans: c

78. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and
superimposed load is
a) 180
b) 200
c) 250
d) 350
Ans: a

79. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by
wind or seismic forces is
a) 150
b) 180
c) 250
d) 350
Ans: c

80. According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection index
(n) is
a) 1.0
b) 1.4
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
Ans: b

81. The best arrangement to provide unified behavior in built up steel columns is by
a) lacing
b) battening
c) tie plates
d) perforated cover plates
Ans: a

82. If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar
should be
a) 40mm
b) 60mm
c) 80mm
d) 100mm
Ans: b

83. The use of tie plates in laced columns is
a) prohibited
b) not prohibited
c) permitted at start and end of lacing system only
d) permitted between two parts of the lacing
Ans: c

84. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
a) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
b) shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
c) 2.5% of the column load
d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: b

85. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should
preferably be between
a) 10° to 30°
b) 30° to 40°
c) 40° to 70°
d) 90°
Ans: c

86. Battening is preferable when the
i) column carries axial load only
ii) space between the two main components is not very large
iii) column is eccentrically loaded The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

87. The effective length of a battened column is increased by
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: b

88. The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be
more than
a) 3t
b) 4t
c) 6t
d) 8t
where t = thickness of the batten plate
Ans: b

89. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed
a) 100
b) 120
c) 145
d) 180
Ans: c

90. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
a) minimum weight
b) minimum depth
c) maximum weight
d) minimum thickness of web
Ans: a

91. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
a) vertical intermediate stiffener
b) horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
c) bearing stiffener
d) none of the above
Ans: a

92. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
a) shear buckling of web plate
b) compression buckling of web plate
c) yielding
d) all of the above
Ans: b

93. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also
exposed to weather, is
a) 5 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 8 mm
d) 10mm
Ans: b

94. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
a) increasing the web thickness
b) providing suitable stiffeners
c) increasing the length of the bearing plates
d) none of the above
Ans: c

95. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the out stand of flange plates should not
exceed
a) 121
b) 161
c) 201
d) 251
where t = thickness of thinnest flange plate
Ans: b

96. Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web
exceeds
a) 501
b) 851
c) 200t
d) 2501
where t is thickness of web
Ans: b

97. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
a) transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
b) prevent buckling of web
c) decrease the effective depth of web
d) prevent excessive deflection
Ans: b

98. The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
a) axial forces
b) shear and axial forces
c) shear and bending forces
d) axial and bending forces
Ans: c

99. Gantry girders are designed to resist
a) lateral loads
b) longitudinal loads and vertical loads
c) lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
d) lateral and longitudinal loads
Ans: c

100. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to
a) d/4
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) 2d/3
where d is the distance between flange angles
Ans: b

101. Bearing stiffeners are provided at
i) the supports
ii) the mid span
iii) the point of application of concentrated loads The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

102. Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
a) horizontal shear only
b) vertical load only
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a

103. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is
a) 1.33d
b) 1.25 d
c) 1.5 d
d) 1.75d
where d is the distance between flange angles
Ans: c

104. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from
a) L/3 to L/5
b) L/4to2L/5
c) L/3 to L/2
d) 2L/5 to 3L/5 where L is span
Ans: a

105. The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
a) 650 mm
b) 810 mm
c) 1250 mm
d) 1680 mm
Ans: d

106. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than
a) 26'/2°
b) 30°
c) 35°
d) 40°
Ans: b

107. To minimise the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of
purlins shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b

108. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
a) axial force in rafter
b) shear force in rafter
c) deflection of rafter
d) bending moment in rafter
Ans: d

109. For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal
to the wall and roof surfaces is taken as
a) zero
b) ±0.2p
c) ± 0.5 p
d) ±0.7p
where p is basic wind pressure
Ans: b

110. The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as
a) pa V
b) paV2
c) p a (1/V)
d) paV"2
Ans: b

Top 120 Highway Engineering Question

1. Select the correct statement.
a) More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required.
b) More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required.
c) Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively.
d) all of the above
Ans: c

2. If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is treated as
a) good
b) fair
c) poor
d) very poor
Ans: c

3. Tyre pressure influences the
a) total depth of pavement
b) quality of surface course
c) both the above
d) none of the above
Ans: b

4. Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm2 is
a) equal to 1
b) less than 1
c) greater than 1
d) zero
Ans: b

5. The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is
a) load stress + warping stress frictional stress
b) load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
c) load stress + warping stress
d) load stress + frictional stress
Ans: c

6. Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at
a) expansion joints
b) contraction joints
c) warping joints
d) longitudinal joints
Ans: d

7. The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is
a) 2.5 m
b) 3.5 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 5.5m
Ans: c

8. The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is
a) 0
b) 25 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 100 mm
Ans: b

9. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to
a) relieve warping stresses
b) relieve shrinkage stresses
c) resist stresses due to expansion
d) allow free expansion
Ans: d

10. The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is
a) climatic condition
b) type and intensity of traffic
c) subgrade soil and drainage conditions
d) availability of funds for the construction project
Ans: b

11. Most suitable material for highway embankments is
a) granular soil
b) organic soil
c) silts
d) clays
Ans: a

12. Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is
a) 500 tonnes per day
b) 1000 tonnes per day
c) 1500 tonnes per day
d) 2000 tonnes per day
Ans: c

13. The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a
a) smooth wheeled roller
b) pneumatic tyred roller
c) sheep foot roller
d) vibrator
Ans: c

14. The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter
width and for 10 mm thickness is
a) 8 cubic meter
b) 10 cubic meter
c) 12 cubic meter
d) 15 cubic meter
Ans: c

15. The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is
a) equal to the cross slope of pavement
b) less than the cross slope of pavement
c) greater than the cross slope of pavement
d) zero
Ans: a

16. The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is
a) cement
b) lime
c) bitumen
d) none of the above
Ans: c

17. In highway construction, rolling starts from
a) sides and proceed to centre
b) centre and proceed to sides
c) one side and proceed to other side
d) any of the above
Ans: a

18. For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations
after spreading coarse aggregates is
a) dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
b) dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
c) dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
d) dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
Ans: c

19. In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is
a) sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
b) premixed with aggregates and then spread
c) sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
d) none of the above
Ans: a

20. When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing
cement concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is
a) seal coat
b) tack coat
c) prime coat
d) spray of emulsion
Ans: b

21. Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming
a) rectangular or block road pattern
b) radial or star and block road pattern
c) radial or star and circular road pattern
d) radial or star and grid road pattern
Ans: d

22. Select the correct statement.
a) Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population.
b) Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km.
c) Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National
highway.
d) Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while calculating
the length of roads.
Ans: c

23. The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is
a) reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey
b) map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
c) map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
d) preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey
Ans: c

24. The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is
a) straight line
b) parabolic
c) elliptical
d) combination of straight and parabolic
Ans: a

25. For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of
camber is
a) 1 in 30
b) 1 in 36
c) 1 in 48
d) 1 in 60
Ans: b

26. The stopping sight distance depends upon
a) total reaction time of driver
b) speed of vehicle
c) efficiency of brakes
d) all of the above
Ans: d

27. When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of
the wheels due to rotation, then it results in
a) slipping
b) skidding
c) turning
d) revolving
Ans: b

28. Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is
a) rough
b) dry
c) smooth and dry
d) smooth and wet
Ans: d

29. The shoulder provided along the road edge should be
a) rougher than the traffic lanes
b) smoother than the traffic lanes
c) of same colour as that of the pavement
d) of very low load bearing capacity
Ans: a

30. Camber in the road is provided for
a) effective drainage
b) counteracting the centrifugal force
c) having proper sight distance
d) none of the above
Ans: a

31. Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance is
a) less
b) more
c) same
d) dependent on the speed
Ans: b

32. On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal to
a) stopping distance
b) two times the stopping distance
c) half the stopping distance
d) three times the stopping distance
Ans: b

33. The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to
a) overtaking sight distance
b) two times the overtaking sight distance
c) three times the overtaking sight distance
d) five times the overtaking sight distance
Ans: d

34. Stopping sight distance is always
a) less than overtaking sight distance
b) equal to overtaking sight distance
c) more than overtaking sight distance
d) none of the above
Ans: a

35. Reaction time of a driver
a) increases with increase in speed
b) decreases with increase in speed
c) is same for all speeds
d) none of the above
Ans: b

36. If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane,
two way traffic is
a) 30m
b) 60m
c) 120m
d) 180m
Ans: b

37. The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is
a) to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
b) to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
c) to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
d) to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades
Ans: c

38. The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations
is
a) 60 kmph
b) 80 kmph
c) 100 kmph
d) 120 kmph
Ans: c

39. The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is
a) upto 10%
b) between 10% and 25%
c) between 25% and 60%
d) more than 60%
Ans: b

40. If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface,
then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should
always be
a) less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
b) less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
c) greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
d) greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction
Ans: b

41. Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates ?
a) crushing strength test
b) abrasion test
c) impact test
d) shape test
Ans: c

42. Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct
a) abrasion test
b) impact test
c) attrition test
d) crushing strength test
Ans: a

43. In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at
a) 2.5 mm penetration only
b) 5.0 mm penetration only
c) 7.5 mm penetration only
d) both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
Ans: d

44. If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as
a) exceptionally strong
b) strong
c) satisfactory for road surfacing
d) unsuitable for road surfacing
Ans: c

45. The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is
a) 10%
b) 20 %
c) 30%
d) 45 %
Ans: c

46. Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is
a) more than that in tar
b) less than that in tar
c) equal to that in tar
d) none of the above
Ans: b

47. The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than
a) 30 cm
b) 40 cm
c) 50 cm
d) 60 cm
Ans: c

48. The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is
a) 0.4 %
b) 0.6%
c) 0.8 %
d) 1.0 %
Ans: b

49. Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen ?
a) 30/40
b) 60/70
c) 80/100
d) 100/120
Ans: a

50. Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its
a) grade
b) viscosity
c) ductility
d) temperature susceptibility
Ans: a

51. Bitumen of grade 80/100 means
a) its penetration value is 8 mm
b) its penetration value is 10 mm
c) its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
d) its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
Ans: c

52. RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to
a) same viscosity
b) viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
c) viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
d) none of the above
Ans: a

53. The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is
a) RT-1
b) RT-2
c) RT.3
d) RT-5
Ans: d

54. Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum
temperature is 40° C should be
a) less-than 40°C
b) greater than 40°C
c) equal to 40°C
d) none of the above
Ans: b

55. For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is
a) gasoline
b) kerosene oil
c) light diesel
d) heavy diesel
Ans: a

56. The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is
a) group index method
b) CBR method
c) Westergaard method
d) Benkelman beam method
Ans: b

57. The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and
percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is
a) 0
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
Ans: a

58. Bottom most layer of pavement is known as
a) wearing course
b) base course
c) sub-base course
d) subgrade
Ans: d

59. Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load
a) directly to subgrade
b) through structural action
c) through a set of layers to the subgrade
d) none of the above
Ans: c

60. The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load
should be able to support
during the life of pavement is
a) 1000
b) 10000
c) 100000
d) 1000000
Ans: d

61. Group index method of design of flexible pavement is
a) a theoretical method
b) an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
c) an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil
d) a semi empirical method
Ans: b

62. As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain
terrain is
a) 1 in 15
b) 1 in 12.5
c) 1 in 10
d) equal to camber
Ans: a

63. For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced by
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 75%
Ans: c

64. On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the
pressure on the outer wheels will be
a) more than the pressure on inner wheels
b) less than the pressure on inner wheels
c) equal to the pressure on inner wheels
d) zero
Ans: a

65. For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation
increases with
a) increase in both speed and radius of curve
b) decrease in both speed and radius of curve
c) increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
d) decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
Ans: d

66. To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the design
speed is given by
a) 8 kmph
b) 12kmph
c) 16kmph
d) 20 kmph
Ans: c

67. The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph is
a) 110 m
b) 220 m
c) 440 m
d) 577 m
Ans: c

68. The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the
pavement
a) is preferable in steep terrain
b) results in balancing the earthwork
c) avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
d) does not change the vertical alignment of road
Ans: c

69. Select the correct statement.
a) Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.
b) Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
c) Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.
d) Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
Ans: d

70. In case of hill roads, the extra widening is generally provided
a) equally on inner and outer sides of the curve
b) fully on the inner side of the curve
c) fully on the outer side of the curve
d) one-fourth on inner side and three-fourth on outer side of the curve
Ans: b

71. The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC
recommendations is
a) spiral
b) lemniscate
c) cubic parabola
d) any of the above
Ans: a

72. For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is
a) based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
b) based on rate of change of super elevation
c) higher of (a) and (b)
d) smaller of (a) and (b)
Ans: c

73. The maximum design gradient for vertical profile of a road is
a) ruling gradient
b) limiting gradient
c) exceptional gradient
d) minimum gradient
Ans: a

74. The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of
radius 760 m is
a) 0.1 %
b) 1 %
c) 10%
d) no compensation
Ans: d

75. If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then the
compensated grade should be
a) 3 %
b) 4%
c) 5 %
d) 6%
Ans: b

76. The camber of road should be approximately equal to
a) longitudinal gradient
b) two times the longitudinal gradient
c) three times the longitudinal gradient
d) half the longitudinal gradient
Ans: d

77. Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ?
a) simple parabola
b) cubic parabola
c) spiral
d) lemniscate
Ans: b

78. The value of ruling gradient in plains as per IRC recommendation is
a) 1 in 12
b) 1 m 15
c) 1 in 20
d) 1 in 30
Ans: d

79. In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when
a) an ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient
b) an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient
c) a descending gradient meets with another descending gradient
d) an ascending gradient meets with a level surface
Ans: b

80. If the design speed is V kmph and deviation angle is N radians, then the total length of a
valley curve in meters is given by the expression
a) 0.38 N V3/2
b) 0.38 (NV3)"2
c) 3.8 NV"2
d) 3.8 (NV3)"2
Ans: b

81. If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 50, the length of
summit curve for a stopping sight distance of 80 m will be
a) zero
b) 64m
c) 80m
d) 60m
Ans: d

82. Highway facilities are designed for
a) annual average hourly volume
b) annual average daily traffic
c) thirtieth highest hourly volume
d) peak hourly volume of the year
Ans: c

83. Enoscope is used to find
a) average speed
b) spot speed
c) space-mean speed
d) time-mean speed
Ans: b

84. For highway geometric design purposes the speed used is
a) 15th percentile
b) 50 ""percentile
c) 85th percentile
d) 98 ""percentile
Ans: d

85. Select the correct statement.
a) Traffic volume should always be more than traffic capacity.
b) Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume.
c) Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section.
d) 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed.
Ans: b

86. Length of a vehicle affects
a) width of traffic lanes
b) extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius
c) width of shoulders and parking facilities
d) clearance to be provided under structures such as overbridges, under-bridges etc.
Ans: b

87. The maximum width of a vehicle as recommended by IRC is
a) 1.85m
b) 2.44 m
c) 3.81 m
d) 4.72 m
Ans: b

88. Desire lines are plotted in
a) traffic volume studies
b) speed studies
c) accident studies
d) origin and destination studies
Ans: d

89. Which of the following methods is preferred for collecting origin and destination data for a
small area like a mass business center or a large intersection ?
a) road side interview method
b) license plate method
c) return postcard method
d) home interview method
Ans: b

90. The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in
accidents is known as
a) spot maps
b) pie charts
c) condition diagram
d) collision diagram
Ans: d

91. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
d) first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
Ans: a

92. Which of the following is known as design capacity ?
a) basic capacity
b) theoretical capacity
c) possible capacity
d) practical capacity
Ans: a

93. If the average center to center spacing of vehicles is 20 meters, then the basic
capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 50 kmph is
a) 2500 vehicles per day
b) 2000 vehicles per hour
c) 2500 vehicles per hour
d) 1000 vehicles per hour
Ans: c

94. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the lane
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
d) first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
Ans: c

95. Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is
a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) 0.5
d) 10
Ans: a

96. If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then
the theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is
a) 1500 vehicles per hour
b) 2000 vehicles per hour
c) 2500 vehicles per hour
d) 3000 vehicles per hour
Ans: a

97. Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be
based on
a) spot speed data
b) origin and destination data
c) traffic volume data
d) accident data
Ans: b

98. The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location like
roadway limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as
a) pie chart
b) spot maps
c) condition diagram
d) collision diagram
Ans: c

99. When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero,then
a) traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
b) traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value
c) traffic density and traffic volume both become zero
d) traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value
Ans: a

100. On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points is
a) 6
b) 11
c) 18
d) 24
Ans: d

101. The background colour of the informatory sign board is
a) red
b) yellow
c) green
d) white
Ans: b

102. Which of the following is indicated by a warning sign ?
a) level crossing
b) no parking
c) end of speed limit
d) overtaking prohibited
Ans: a

103. "Dead Slow" is a
a) regulatory sign
b) warning sign
c) informatory sign
d) none of the above
Ans: a

104. The most efficient traffic signal system is
a) simultaneous system
b) alternate system
c) flexible progressive system
d) simple progressive system
Ans: c

105. The provision of traffic signals at intersections
a) reduces right angled and rear end collisions
b) increases right angled and rear end collisions
c) reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
d) reduces rear end collisions but may increase right angled collisions
Ans: c

106. Select the incorrect statement.
a) Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow.
b) Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow.
c) Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds.
d) The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals.
Ans: b

107. Centre line markings are used
a) to designate traffic lanes
b) in roadways meant for two way traffic
c) to indicate that overtaking is not permitted
d) to designate proper lateral placement of vehicles before turning to different directions
Ans: b

108. The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly marked by
the pavement marking known
as
a) stop lines
b) turn markings
c) crosswalk lines
d) lane lines
Ans: c

109. The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have
a) equal radii and equal widths of pavement
b) equal radii but pavement width is more at entrance than at exit curve
c) equal pavement widths but radius is more at entrance curve than at exit curve
d) different radii and different widths of pavement
Ans: d

110. When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape of central
island is
a) circular
b) elliptical
c) tangent
d) turbine
Ans: a

111. The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function efficiently is
a) 500 vehicles per hour
b) 500 vehicles per day
c) 5000 vehicles per hour
d) 5000 vehicles per day
Ans: c

112. A traffic rotary is justified where
a) number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
b) space is limited and costly
c) when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
d) when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
Ans: a

113. When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then
the suitable shape of
rotary is
a) circular
b) tangent
c) elliptical
d) turbine
Ans: b

114. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with
a) parallel parking
b) 30° angle parking
c) 45° angle parking
d) 90° angle parking
Ans: d

115. When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred
parking system is
a) parallel parking
b) 45° angle parking
c) 65° angle parking
d) 90° angle parking
Ans: a

116. As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying
fast traffic is
a) 10 lux
b) 15 lux
c) 20 lux
d) 30 lux
Ans: d

117. The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is
a) single side lighting
b) staggered system
c) central lighting system
d) none of the above
Ans: a

118. The direct interchange ramp involves
a) diverging to the right side and merging from left
b) diverging to the left side and merging from right
c) diverging to the right side and merging from right
d) diverging to the left side and merging from left
Ans: c

119. In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then
a) compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases
b) compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease
c) compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase
d) compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
Ans: d

120. Which of the following premix methods is used for base course ?
a) bituminous carpet
b) mastic asphalt
c) sheet asphalt
d) bituminous bound macadam
Ans: d

Sunday, 28 January 2018

Top 110 Soil Mechanics Objective Question

1. Residual soils are formed by
a) glaciers
b) wind
c) water
d) none of the above
Ans:d

2. Water content of soil can
a) never be greater than 100 %
b) take values only from 0 % to 100 %
c) be less than 0 %
d) be greater than 100 %
Ans:d

3. Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces ?
a) loess
b) talus
c) drift
d) dune sand
Ans:b

4. A fully saturated soil is said to be
a) one phase system
b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water
d) three phase system
Ans:c

5. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is
a) S>0
b) S<0
c) 0<S<100
d) 0 < S < 100
Ans:d

6. A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil is
a) 18.6 kN/m3
b) 20.0 kN/m3
c) 22.0 kN/m3
d) 23.2 kN/m3
Ans:b

7. If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
a) air entrained soil
b) partially saturated soil
c) dry soil
d) dehydrated soil
Ans:c

8. Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is
a) 0<n<100
b) 0<n<100
c) n>0
d) n<0
Ans:a

9. Select the correct statement.
a) Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.
b) For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight.
c) Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water.
d) Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.
Ans:d

10. Voids ratio of a soil mass can
a) never be greater than unity
b) be zero
c) take any value greater than zero
d) take values between 0 and 1 only
Ans:c

11. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of
porosity and voids ratio respectively are
a) 1.0 and 0.0
b) 0.0 and 1.0
c) 0.5 and 1.0
d) 1.0 and 0.5
Ans:c

12. When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents
a) one phase system
b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water
d) three phase system
Ans:b

13. Select the correct range of density index,ID
a) lD>0
b) ID>0
c) 0 < lD < 1
d) 0 < ID < 1
Ans:d

14. If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil is
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%
Ans:a

15. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample
is
a) less than specific gravity of soil
b) equal to specific gravity of soil
c) greater than specific gravity of soil
d) independent of specific gravity of soil
Ans:b

16. The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
a) air content
b) porosity
c) percentage air voids
d) voids ratio
Ans:b

17. Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.95
d) 1.20
Ans:c

18. If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
a) zero
b) 1
c) between 0 and 1
d) greater than 1
Ans:b

19. Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of
soil ?
a) oven drying method
b) sand bath method
c) calcium carbide method
d) pycnometer method
Ans:a

20. For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination
of water content of a soil mass ?
a) oven drying method
b) sand bath method
c) alcohol method
d) calcium carbide method
Ans:d

21. Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as
a) percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition
b) ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a remoulded state
c) ratio of volume of voids to volume of solids
d) none of the above
Ans:b

22. Rankine's theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is
a) plane and smooth
b) plane and rough
c) vertical and smooth
d) vertical and rough
Ans:c

23. The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction
of 30° is
a) 1/3
b) 3
c) 1
d) 1/2
Ans:a

24. The major principal stress in an element of cohesionless soil within the backfill of a retaining
wall is
a) vertical if the soil is in an active state of plastic equilibrium
b) vertical if the soil is in a passive state of plastic equilibrium
c) inclined at 45° to the vertical plane
d) none of the above
Ans:a

25. The effect of cohesion on a soil is to
a) reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
b) increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
c) reduce the active earth pressure in-tensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity
d) increase the active earth pressure in-tensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity
Ans:c

26. A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The back of the
wall is inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of wall friction is 7°, then
the resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m above the base and inclined to the
horizontal at an angle of
a) 7°
b) 10°
c) 12°
d) 17°
Ans:c

27. Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is
a) less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
b) greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
c) greater than both the active earth pressure and passive earth pressure
d) less than both the active and passive earth pressures
Ans:b

28. Bishop's method of stability analysis
a) is more conservative
b) neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
c) assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle
d) all of the above
Ans:c

29. Allowable bearing pressure for a founda¬tion depends upon
a) allowable settlement only
b) ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
c) both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
d) none of above
Ans:c

30. The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil mainly
by reducing
a) cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
b) cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
c) effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
d) effective angle of shearing resistance
Ans:b

31. A pycnometer is used to determine
a) water content and voids ratio
b) specific gravity and dry density
c) water content and specific gravity
d) voids ratio and dry density
Ans:c

32. Stoke's law is valid only if the size of particle is
a) less than 0.0002 mm
b) greater than 0.2 mm
c) between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
d) all of the above
Ans:c

33. In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
a) both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
b) both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
c) meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
d) meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive
Ans:c

34. The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
a) the principle of test
b) the method of taking observations
c) the method of preparation of soil suspension
d) all of the above
Ans:b

35. Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?
a) effective size
b) uniformity coefficient
c) coefficient of curvature
d) none of the above
Ans:b

36. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve.
b) For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity.
c) A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
d) none of the above
Ans:d

37. Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
a) always less than 1
b) always equal to 1
c) equal to or less than 1
d) equal to or gi eater than 1
Ans:d

38. According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is
a) 0 < PI < 7
b) 7<PI< 17
c) 17<PI<27
d) PI>27
Ans:b

39. If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil
mass is said to be in
a) liquid state
b) plastic state
c) semi-solid state
d) solid state
Ans:b

40. When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is
reported as
a) negative
b) zero
c) non-plastic (NP)
d) 1
Ans:b

41. With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
a) optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
b) optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
c) both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
d) both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease[ES 93]
Ans:b

42. The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
a) moisture content only
b) amount of compaction energy only
c) both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
d) none of the above
Ans:c

43. For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are
compacted respectively as
a) dry of OMC and wet of OMC
b) wet of OMC and dry of OMC
c) wet of OMC and wet of OMC
d) dry of OMC and dry of OMC where OMC is optimum moisture content
Ans:b

44. Select the incorrect statement.
a) Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value.
b) Effective angle of internal friction for coarse grained soils is rarely below 30°.
c) Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increases as state of compact-ness increases.
d) Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay size
content.
Ans:a

45. For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective stress
a) ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same
b) ultimate strength is different but peak strength is same
c) ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
d) ultimate strength is same but peak
Ans:c

46. The shear strength of a soil
a) is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
b) is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
c) decreases with increase in normal stress
d) decreases with decrease in normal stress
Ans:d

47. In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample
during shear
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains unchanged
d) first increases and then decreases
Ans:a

48. Skempton's pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is
a) 1
b) zero
c) between 0 and 1
d) greater than 1
Ans:a

49. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of
a) effective stress only
b) total stress only
c) both effective stress and total stress
d) none of the above
Ans:a

50. In a deposit of normally consolidated clay
a) effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and un-drained strength
decrease with depth
b) effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength decreases with
depth
c) effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content decreases with
depth
d) effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth
Ans:c

51. Select the incorrect statement.
Effective angle of shearing resistance
a) increases as the size of particles increases
b) increases as the soil gradation im-proves
c) is limited to a maximum value of 45°
d) is rarely more than 30° for fine grained soil
Ans:c

52. Unconfmed compressive strength test is
a) undrained test
b) drained test
c) consolidated undrained test
d) consolidated drained test
Ans:a

53. A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m2
when it was laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an
angle of 45°.
The values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are respectively
a) 0.5 N/mm2 and 30°
b) 0.05 N/mm2 and 0°
c) 0.2 N/mm2 and 0°
d) 0.05 N/mm2 and 45°
Ans:b

54. The angle that Coulomb's failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
a) cohesion
b) angle of internal friction
c) angle of repose
d) none of the above
Ans:a

55. If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the
cracks to the horizontal is
a) 90°
b) 45°
c) 22.5°
d) 0°
Ans:b

56. Select the incorrect statement.
a) In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined.
b) Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial com-pression test.
c) Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is uniform.
d) Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils.
Ans:d

57. If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 135°
d) 225°
Ans:b

58. In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress)
on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
a) horizontal plane only
b) vertical plane only
c) both horizontal and vertical planes
d) all planes except horizontal and vertical planes
Ans:d

59. In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application
of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at
constant cell pressure), the test is known as
a) consolidated drained test
b) consolidated undrained test
c) unconsolidated drained test
d) unconsolidated undrained test
Ans:b

60. During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm2 to
0.26 N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15 "N/mm2. Skempton's
pore pressure parameter B is
a) 0.5
b) -0.5
c) 2.0
d) - 2.0
Ans:a

61. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
a) plasticity index to consistency index
b) plasticity index to flow index
c) liquidity index to flow index
d) consistency index to liquidity index
Ans:b

62. If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
a) sand
b) silt
c) clay
d) clayey silt
Ans:a

63. The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes
a) decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index
b) decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
c) decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
d) increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
Ans:c

64. Select the correct statement.
a) A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
b) A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
c) Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability.
d) Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil.
Ans:b

65. The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid
state, is known as
a) liquid limit
b) plastic limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) plasticity index
Ans:a

66. Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
a) sand
b) silt
c) clay
d) gravel
Ans:c

67. At liquid limit, all soils possess
a) same shear strength of small magni-tude
b) same shear strength of large magni-tude
c) different shear strengths of small magnitude
d) different shear strengths of large magnitude
Ans:a

68. If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing
soil paste drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then
a) the liquid limit of soil always increases
b) the liquid limit of soil always decreases
c) the liquid limit of soil may increase
d) the liquid limit of soil may decrease
Ans:a

69. According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
a) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
b) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
c) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
d) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
Ans:d

70. Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on
a) particle size composition
b) plasticity characteristics
c) both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
d) none of the above
Ans:c

71. Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by
a) MH
b) SL
c) ML
d) CH
Ans:c

72. Sand particles are made of
a) rock minerals
b) kaolinite
c) illite
d) montmorillonite
Ans:a

73. The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
a) kaolinite
b) illite
c) montmorillonite
d) none of the above
Ans:c

74. Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
a) face to face or parallel orientation
b) edge to edge orientation
c) edge to face orientation
d) all of the above
Ans:a

75. Effective stress is
a) the stress at particles contact
b) a physical parameter that can be measured
c) important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
d) all of the above
Ans:c

76. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
a) equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
b) equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
c) increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
d) decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
Ans:a

77. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming
pool are respectively
a) zero and zero
b) 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
c) 0.5 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
d) 1.0 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
Ans:b

78. If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the
a) effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does
not change
b) effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does
not change
c) total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effec-tive stress does
not change
d) total stress is increased due to de-crease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not
change
Ans:b

79. Quick sand is a
a) type of sand
b) flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
c) flow condition occurring in cohesionless soils
d) flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesionless soils
Ans:a

80. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5
m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
a) 1.0m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 3m
Ans:b

81. Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to
achieve 50% consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness with double
drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 24 months
Ans:a

82. Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally
a) decreases with increase in liquid limit
b) increases with increase in liquid limit
c) first increases and then decreases with increase in liquid limit
d) remains constant at all liquid limits
Ans:a

83. Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be made
a) only in fixed ring type consolido-meter
b) only in floating ring type consolido-meter
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:a

84. Compressibility of sandy soils is
a) almost equal to that of clayey soils
b) much greater than that of clayey soils
c) much less than that of clayey soils
d) none of the above
Ans:c

85. Select the correct statement.
a) coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is less than that of a normally
consolidated clay
b) coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is greater than that of a normally
consolidated clay
c) coefficient of compressibility is cons-tant for any clay
d) none of the above
Ans:a

86. Coefficient of compressibility is
a) constant for any type of soil
b) different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states of
consolidation
c) different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states of consolidation
d) independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil
Ans:b

87. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil
a) decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
b) decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
c) increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
d) increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
Ans:a

88. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
a) directly proportional to the voids ratio
b) directly proportional to the compression index
c) inversely proportional to the compression index
d) none of the above
Ans:b

89. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100
kN/m2 to 200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2,
then the settlement of the same clay is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 40 mm
d) none of the above
Ans:a

90. Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
a) drum roller
b) rubber tyred roller
c) sheep's foot roller
d) vibratory roller
Ans:d

91. Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are
a) viscosity only
b) unit weight only
c) both viscosity and unit weight
d) none of the above
Ans:c

92. Select the correct statement.
a) The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability.
b) The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability.
c) The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability.
d) Unit weight does not affect per-meability.
Ans:b

93. Effective stress on soil
a) increases voids ratio and decreases permeability
b) increases both voids ratio and per-meability
c) decreases both voids ratio and per-meability
d) decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
Ans:c

94. If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is
a) gravel
b) sand
c) silt
d) clay
Ans:b

95. Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of
clayey soil ?
a) constant head method
b) falling head method
c) horizontal permeability test
d) none of the above
Ans:b

96. Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of
coarsegrained soils ?
a) constant head method
b) falling head method
c) both the above
d) none of the above
Ans:a

97. Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are
reduced to 60% and 90% respectively.
If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
a) increases by 25%
b) increases by 50%
c) increases by 33.3%
d) decreases by 33.3%
Ans:b

98. Coefficient of permeability of soil
a) does not depend upon temperature
b) increases with the increase in tempe-rature v
c) increases with the decrease in tempe-rature
d) none of the above
Ans:b

99. The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits
a) parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification
b) parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratifi-cation
c) is always same in both directions
d) parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to stratification
Ans:a

100. The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is
a) sum of the discharges from individual wells
b) less than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
c) greater than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
d) equal to larger of the two discharges from individual wells
Ans:b

101. The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5
flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03 mm/sec. The discharge per
metre length of dam is
a) 0.00018 nrVsec
b) 0.0045 m3/sec
c) 0.18m3/sec
d) 0.1125m3/sec
Ans:a

102. The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
a) well ppint system
b) vacuum method
c) deep well system
d) electro-osmosis method
Ans:d

103. Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary is
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 16
Ans:c

104. The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of
a) effective stress with time
b) effective stress with depth
c) pore water pressure with depth
d) pore water pressure with time
Ans:c

105. Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay
a) a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure takes
place and sum of the two is constant
b) a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure takes
place and sum of the two is constant
c) both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
d) both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase
Ans:b

106. The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
a) 0.028
b) 0.28
c) 036
d) 0.036
Ans:b

107. Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand ?
a) over-consolidated ciay with a high over-consolidation ratio
b) over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
c) normally consolidated clay
d) under-consolidated clay
Ans:a

108. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
a) compressibility
b) permeability
c) both compressibility and permeability
d) none of the above
Ans:c

109. Degree of consolidation is
a) directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to drainage path
b) directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to square of drainage path
c) directly proportional to drainage path and inversely proportional to time
d) directly proportional to square of drainage path and inversely propor-tional to time
Ans:b

110. Time factor for a clay layer is
a) a dimensional parameter
b) directly proportional to permeability of soil
c) inversely proportional to drainage path
d) independent of thickness of clay layer
Ans:b